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Answer
Questions Across the Lifecycle
1
?
a
b
c
d
"Warranty
of a service" means which of the following?
a) The
service is fit for purpose
b)
Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,
continuity and security
c) The
service has been tested appropriately with no errors being found
d) All
customers are given free support for the service for a stated period
of time
2
?
a
b
c
d
What are the three most important benefits
for implementing ITIL® within an IT organization?
1. Improving IT service quality
2. Improving Customer focus
3. Improving service cost-effectiveness
4. Improving staff skills
3
?
a
b
c
d
A
Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a)
Purchasing tools to support the Process
b)
Defining the targets that will be used to evaluate process
performance
c)
Ensuring that availability targets specified in SLAs are met
d)
Carrying out all the activities defined in the Process
4
?
a
b
c
d
IT
Service Management is best described as?
a)
A set of specialized organizational capabilities for
providing value to customers in the form of services.
b)
The processes required to deliver and support services
c)
The processes that enable efficient IT service delivery and
support
d)
A technically focused set of management practices for IT
service delivery
5
?
a
b
c
d
ITIL® can be best described as?
a)
A holistic, Service Lifecycle approach to ITSM based on
international best practices
b)
Repeatable and adaptable ITSM processes
c)
An international standard for ITSM
d)
The best way for an organization to improve its IT service
delivery and support
6
?
a
b
c
d
Processes can be described as?
a)
Activities designed to make delivering IT Services more
effective and efficient
b)
People and the tools they use to carry out activities that
gain revenue
c)
Inter-related activities carried out for the purpose of
creating value for customers or stakeholders
d)
Capabilities used to reduce IT costs
7
?
a
b
c
d
The ITIL® framework is best described as?
a)
An Service Delivery Lifecycle
b)
An IT Management Lifecycle
d)
An Infrastructure Lifecycle
8
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements is ALWAYS CORRECT about a
'good practice’?
a)
It is a strict set of rules and practices to be complied
with
b)
It is something that is successful in wide industry use
c)
It is used by the most profitable international
organizations
d)
It is always based on ITIL®
9
?
a
b
c
d
"If something cannot be measured, it should not be
documented" is a principle that applies to which of the
following?
b)
A Service Level Agreement (SLA)
c)
An Incident Management record
d)
A Configuration Item (CI)
10
?
a
b
c
d
What is the RACI model used for?
a)
Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a
process or activity
b)
Defining requirements for a new service or process
c)
Analysing the business impact of an incident
d)
Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of
Service Management
11
?
a
b
c
d
A
Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a)
Recommending improvements to services under their care
b)
Defining and documenting Service Requirements
c)
Carrying out the activities needed to support a Service
d)
Reporting service levels back to the customer
12
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1.
Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2.
Only one person can be accountable for an activity
13
?
a
b
c
d
How do organizations use Resources and Capabilities in
creating value?
a)
They are used to create value in the form of network
availability
b)
They are used to create value in the form of goods and
services
c)
They are used to create value to the IT organization for
Service Design
d)
They are used to create value to the IT organization for
Service Transition
14
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL® phases?
15
?
a
b
c
d
Defining the value and objectives of IT Services is the
primary concern of which of the following elements of the
Service Lifecycle?
b)
Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c)
Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d)
Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition,
Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
16
?
a
b
c
d
Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of
the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a)
Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition,
Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement
b)
Service Strategy, Service Design, and Service Operation
c)
Service Transition and Continual Service Improvement
d)
Continual Service Improvement
a) Service
Strategy
Questions
17
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following are Service Portfolio
components within the Service Lifecycle?
1. Requirements Portfolio
2. Service Pipeline
3. Configuration Management System
4. Service Catalogue
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
18
?
a
b
c
d
What is missing from the following Service
Strategy processes? Service Portfolio Management, Demand
Management and …
a) Financial Management for IT Services
b) Service Level Management
c) Supplier Management
d) Information Security Management
a)
19
?
a
b
c
d
Which ITIL® process is responsible for drawing
up a charging system?
a) Demand Management
b) Supplier Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Level Management
a)
20
?
a
b
c
d
Which information does the "Financial
Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level
Management?
a) Cost of hiring new IT staff
b) Cost of the Financial Management system
c) Total costs Application Management
d) How much has been spent on IT services per
client
21
?
a
b
c
d
A Service Level Package is best described as?
a) A definite level of utility and warranty
associated with a service package
b) A description of customer requirements
used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the
customer wants and for which they are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels
achieved during an agreed reporting period
a)
22
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements is CORRECT
about patterns of demand generated by the customer's
business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business
activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they
behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand
patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule
generated by capacity management
a)
23
?
a
b
c
d
Demand Management is primarily used to:
a) Increase customer perception
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT Services
d) Align business with IT needs
a)
24
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following questions is NOT
answered by Service Portfolio Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities
be allocated?
b) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the support procedures for this
service?
a)
25
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements is NOT
true?
a) IT accounting helps to justify expenditure
on new and improved services
b) Charging users for the IT services they
use will reduce the unit costs of supplying those services.
c) Charging can influence user behaviour
d) Having to rely on planning information
from other sources can be a problem when introducing
Financial Management
26
?
a
b
c
d
Consider the following statements:
1. In order to draw up a standard cost-plus
calculation, it is necessary to have information about the
anticipated use that will be made of the IT services.
2. One of the conditions for charging is that
the chargeable units must be recognizable and verifiable for
the Customer.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both.
d) Neither
27
?
a
b
c
d
How can data from Financial Management be
used in Service Level Agreements?
a) To set penalties
b) To set the charge rates for IT services.
c) To include an overview of the actual costs
of IT services
d) All of the above
28
?
a
b
c
d
Which of these is a key reason why charging
for IT Services is an important element of Financial
Management?
a) The availability of an IT Service can be
measured
b) The resources needed for each application
can be determined
c) The use of IT Services can be influenced.
d) Scenarios for capacity planning can be
investigated
a)
29
?
a
b
c
d
The three activities of Financial Management
are…
a) Budgeting, accounting and charging.
b) Budgeting, costing and procuring
c) Planning, costing and charging
c) Accounting, charging and procuring
a)
30
?
a
b
c
d
Costing of IT services allows an organization
to:
a) Know how much to charge users for services
b) Establish how much is spent on providing
each service
c) Prevent users from wasting its resources
d) Retire expensive resources
a)
31
?
a
b
c
d
An IT organization’s IT charging system
registers an unexpected annual loss. Which of the following
factors might explain this discrepancy?
1. Charges may have been set too high
2. Costs may have been higher than expected
3. A loss of Customers may have occurred
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) None of the above
a)
32
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following items are likely to be
capital costs?
1. Computer equipment
2. Buildings
3. Electricity
4. Staff salaries
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
a) Service
Design
Questions
33
?
a
b
c
d
The main objective of Availability Management
is?
a) To provide maximum availability for IT
Services
b) To ensure that service availability
matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
c) To ensure that all targets in Service
Level Agreements (SLAs) for customers are continually
delivered
d) To guarantee availability levels for
services and components
a)
34
?
a
b
c
d
What is another term for Uptime?
a) Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
b) Mean Time to Restore Service (MTRS)
c) Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)
d) Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI
a)
35
?
a
b
c
d
Which aspect of Service Design is missing
from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems
and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and
management systems
4. The design of the measurement systems,
methods and metrics to be used
5. ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of processes
a)
36
?
a
b
c
d
Which ITIL® process is involved in performing
risk assessments and a business impact analysis to determine
appropriate "countermeasures" to be implemented?
a) Availability Management
b) Problem Management
c) IT Service Continuity Management
d) Service Asset & Configuration Management
a)
37
?
a
b
c
d
What are the four P’s Service Design?
a) Process, Partner, Product, People
b) Hardware, Software, Management, Process
c) Process, Product, Pricing, People
d) Technology, Process, Management, People
38
?
a
b
c
d
Who is authorised to establish an agreement
with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT Services?
a) The user
b) The Service Level Manager
c) The Chief Information Officer
d) The customer
a)
39
?
a
b
c
d
What is the name of the activity within the
Capacity Management process whose purpose is to predict the
future capacity requirements of new and changed services?
a) Application Sizing
b) Demand Management
c) Modeling
d) Tuning
a)
40
?
a
b
c
d
A Service Catalogue should contain which of
the following?
a) The Licence information of all software
b) Decommissioned Services
c) Proposed or in development Services
d) Details of all operational services
a)
41
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is a responsibility of
Service Level Management?
a) Design the configuration management system
from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with
customer needs
c) Supporting the creation of a Business
Service Catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with
customer complaints about service
a)
42
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is an activity of IT
Service Continuity Management?
a) Advising end users of a system failure
b) Documenting the fallback arrangements
c) Reporting regarding availability
d) Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items
are constantly kept up-to-date
a)
43
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements CORRECTLY
defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources;
outsourcing relies on external organisation(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external
organisation(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal
resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing;
outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process
outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service
provisioning
a)
44
?
a
b
c
d
In which ITIL® process are negotiations held
with the customer about the availability and capacity levels
to be provided?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Level Management
a)
45
?
a
b
c
d
The main benefit of using Service Design
tools is?
a) To help ensure that design standards and
conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that incidents are detected
as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different CIs to work
together
d) To help collate metrics used for
improvement
a)
46
?
a
b
c
d
Which is NOT and objective of Service Design
Phase?
a) Ensure that IT staff is trained and able
to carry out building and testing of new service
b) Convert strategic objectives in portfolios
of services and service assets
c) Ensure production and maintenance of
Service Catalogue
d) Ensure cost justifiable capacity of
service is matched to business needs
a)
47
?
a
b
c
d
The Information Security Policy should be
available to which groups of people?
a) Senior Account managers and all IT staff
b) Senior managers, IT executives and the
Service Desk
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
a)
48
?
a
b
c
d
Which process reviews Operational Level
Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Technical Management
d) Contract Management
a)
49
?
a
b
c
d
Consider the following statements:
1. A change in the IT infrastructure is
always the result of a change of a Service Level
2. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits
many similarities to procedures of drawing up a Request for
Change (RFC).
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both
d) Neither
a)
50
?
a
b
c
d
The performance of a large computer network
is monitored 24 hours a day. This produces data for which
processes?
a) Availability Management, Capacity
Management, and Change Management
b) Availability Management, Capacity
Management, and Problem Management
c) Change Management, Financial Management,
and Service Level Management
d) Financial Management, Service Desk, and
Problem Management
51
?
a
b
c
d
A computer support technician establishes
that a storage disk is in danger of becoming completely
full. He reports this to…
a) Capacity Management.
b) Change Management
c) Configuration Management
d) Service Level Management
a)
52
?
a
b
c
d
How is the availability of the IT
infrastructure BEST improved?
a) By increasing the reliability of the
software
b) By increasing the capacity of the
infrastructure
c) By training technicians so they can repair
components faster
d) By installing components with higher
reliability and restoring services as soon as possible
a)
53
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the concepts below belongs to
Service Continuity Management?
a) Application Sizing
b) Maintainability
c) Resilience
d) Vulnerability
a)
54
?
a
b
c
d
To support the planned installation of new
software releases, a network server needs upgrading. Which
process would be responsible for investigating the upgrade
requirements of the network server?
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management
55
?
a
b
c
d
In determining service levels, which of the
following processes would be expected to make the greatest
contribution?
a) Service Level Management and Availability
Management
b) Service Level Management and Computer
Operations
c) Availability Management and Capacity
Management
d) Cost Management and Capacity Management
a)
56
?
a
b
c
d
Which expression below represents the correct
calculation of the availability percentage?
a) ((Agreed time – Downtime) / Agreed time) *
100
b) Downtime / Agreed time * 100
c) Agreed time / Actual time * 100
d) Actual Time / Agreed time / 100
57
?
a
b
c
d
What is the best method to ensure that IT
services are geared to the requirements of the users?
a) To appoint a Service Manager
b) To set up a Service Desk
c) To initiate Service Level Agreements
d) To hold regular meetings between the IT
staff and the users
58
?
a
b
c
d
Every year at this organization, the hardware
and software purchase requirements for the next year have to
be worked out. Which function is responsible for producing
appropriate recommendations?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management
d) Change Management
a)
59
?
a
b
c
d
A two-hour down time has been agreed with
users during normal service hours to carry out essential
maintenance work. It soon becomes apparent that completion
of the maintenance work will take three rather than two
hours. What process is most concerned with this delay?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management
d) Release Management
60
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements about
Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers
meet business expectations
b) Supplier Management provides capabilities
for seamless quality in IT services
c) Supplier Management negotiates internal
and external agreements to support the delivery of services
d) Supplier Management should be involved in
all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy through
Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement
a)
61
?
a
b
c
d
During the development of a new information
system, the amount of disk space needed for the application
software as well as the data is determined. Which function
is responsible for ensuring that this disk space is
available at the moment the information system is phased in?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management
d) Release Management
62
?
a
b
c
d
A network server has to be upgraded in
anticipation of the planned installation of a new software
release. Which process is responsible for assessing the
amount of disk space the network server will require?
a) Capacity Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
63
?
a
b
c
d
Clear agreements have been made with a user
about the amount of disk space he will have on the network
server for storing his "personal" files. Which process is
responsible for insuring that this disk space is actually
made available?
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management
a) Service
Transition
Questions
64
?
a
b
c
d
All computer equipment and applications
software should be recorded in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB). Which other components should also be
recorded in the CMDB?
1. Data communications equipment
2. Documentation
3. Personnel
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3 )
65
?
a
b
c
d
A new disk unit has to be installed to solve
a problem with performing back-ups over the network. The
procedures for doing the back-ups have to be changed as
well. Which process has to give approval for carrying out
these changes?
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
a)
66
?
a
b
c
d
Let's say the proper operation of an
organization’s financial application depends on the same
version of the software being installed on every computer.
For this company, which process would be responsible for
implementing this change?
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
67
?
a
b
c
d
What is the consequence of the Configuration
Management’s scope being too narrow?
a) Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot
be checked and managed properly
b) Certain Problems cannot be analyzed
because of a lack of information
c) There are insufficient guarantees that the
information in the CMDB accurately reflects the status of
the actual infrastructure
d) All of the above )
68
?
a
b
c
d
Imagine that a user is provided with a new PC
that is connected to her company intranet. Her old PC is
installed as a print server for the local area network.
Which process would be responsible for recording this
relocation?
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
a)
69
?
a
b
c
d
A number of new PCs are due to be installed
in an office. Which of the following is NOT the
responsibility of Configuration Management?
a) Checking the completeness and correctness
of the recorded data concerning the PCs
b) Checking the operation of the PCs
c) Labelling and recording the data
concerning the PCs
d) Recording and monitoring the status of
recorded data of the PCs
70
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following best describes the
Definitive Media Library?
a) A safe, secure work area in which changes
to software can be made
b) A library containing back-up copies of all
software used on the infrastructure
c) A secure library of software where all
accepted software CIs are held in their quality-controlled
form
d) A secure software library in which all
current software versions are stored
a)
71
?
a
b
c
d
The benefits to an organization that
introduces an effective Release Management process include:
1. Software is released to the live
environment in a way that minimizes the likeliness of
Incidents and Problems.
2. Only one version of software is ever in
use at one time throughout the organization.
3. The risk of pirate software being
introduced is reduced.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) only 1
c) 1 and 3
d) All
a)
72
?
a
b
c
d
A company implementing the ITIL® process uses
a software program that requires altering to correct a
fault. Which ITIL® function would approve the alteration?
a) Software Management
b) Problem Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
73
?
a
b
c
d
Every Configuration Item in a Configuration
Management Database (CMDB) must have a unique reference so
that…
a) Audits can be executed using electronic
equipment
b) The same identifier can be used for
several independent Configuration Items in the CMDB
c) No mistakes can occur in the
identification of the Configuration Items when the CMDB is
used
d) New Configuration Items can be registered
quickly in the CMDB
74
?
a
b
c
d
During the implementation of a new word
processing system on a number of local area networks (LANs),
it transpires that a unique driver must be installed on each
LAN router for the system to work correctly. Which process
is responsible for ensuring that the driver is installed on
each LAN router?
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
75
?
a
b
c
d
Change Management is always responsible for:
a) Ensuring that changes are only permitted
after all those who might be affected have had the
opportunity to express their views
b) Ensuring that only changes which have been
approved by the Change Advisory Board are allowable
c) Maintaining the status of all Requests for
Changes (RFCs)
d) Making all changes to the IT
infrastructure
a)
76
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following can be regarded as a
direct benefit of introducing Change Management?
a) Improved security against malicious
changes to software
b) Better IT service provision through
controlled changes
c) A better understanding of what changes
will cost
d) Fewer changes to the IT infrastructure
77
?
a
b
c
d
Data in the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB) may be updated only if an authorization has been
issued. Which process implicitly issues this authorization?
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Service Desk
d) Service Level Management
a)
78
?
a
b
c
d
After a Change has been implemented, an
evaluation is performed. What is this evaluation called?
a) Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)
b) Post Implementation Review (PIR)
c) Service Improvement Programme (SIP)
d) Change Review
a)
79
?
a
b
c
d
What does the Service V model represent?
a) The utility and performance requirements
of new and changed services
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service
Support for efficient and effective utilization of resources
c) A strategy for the successful completion
of all IT changes
d) Levels of Configuration and testing
required to deliver a Service Capability
a)
80
?
a
b
c
d
What is the main reason for establishing a
baseline?
a) To standardise operation
b) For later comparison
c) For knowing the cost of services provided
d) For roles and responsibility to be clear
a)
81
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following areas would technology
help to support during the Service Transition phase of the
lifecycle?
1. Automated workflow of ITIL® processes
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Distribution and installation of patches
4. Performance testing of new and modified
services
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
a)
82
?
a
b
c
d
The goal of Service Asset and Configuration
Management is to?
a) Account for all the financial assets of
the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT
infrastructure
c) Build service models to justify ITIL® implementations
d) Provide capabilities for managing
documents across the organization
83
?
a
b
c
d
What is the role of the Emergency Change
Advisory Board?
a) To make sure the Change Manager responds
urgently to emergency changes
b) To assist the Change Manager to implement
urgent changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating
emergency changes and to decide whether the change should be
approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in rushing
the emergency change process so that changes can occur
quickly
a)
84
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is a good use of a
baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later
comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for release
a)
85
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following best describes the
primary objective of Knowledge Management?
a) Auditing the configuration management
system from a business perspective
b) Reducing the staffing requirements for the
Service Desk and other support teams
c) To ensure reliable and secure information
and data is available throughout the Service Lifecycle
d) To reduce the average Mean Time to Restore
(MTTR) for incidents affecting Service availability
a)
86
?
a
b
c
d
Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on
transitioning new services into live environment
2. Service Transition provides guidance on
releases
3. Service Transition provides guidance on
the transfer of services to or from an external provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
a)
87
?
a
b
c
d
Which activity in Service Asset &
Configuration Management would help to ascertain which
Configuration Items are undergoing maintenance at a
particular moment in time?
a) Control
b) Verification and audit
c) Identification.
d) Status accounting
a)
88
?
a
b
c
d
The following options are considered within
which process?
1. Big bang vs Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management
a)
89
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following are objectives of the
Release and Deployment Management process?
1. To develop a release and deployment policy
2. To ensure that training occurs for new
service to operations and support staff
3. To ensure that new services are tested
prior to release
4. To provide cost justifiable IT
availability that is matched to the needs of the business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
a)
90
?
a
b
c
d
The objective of Service Asset and
Configuration Management is best described as?
a) To maximize the performance
characteristics of Configuration Items (CIs) in
b) To manage CIs from an operational
perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the
business requirements they were designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of
services and infrastructure and maintain accurate
configuration records
a)
91
?
a
b
c
d
The objective of the Change Management
process is most accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded,
managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that emergency changes to IT
infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that changes have appropriate
rollback plans in the event of a major incident
d) Maximizing services by allowing changes to
be made quickly
92
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following would NOT be stored in
the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of authorized software
b) Backups tapes of financial data
c) Software licences
d) Master copies of controlled documentation
a)
93
?
a
b
c
d
A printer in the insurance department has
broken down. A contractor responsible for the maintenance of
the printer wants to approach the supplier of the printer to
fix the defect. The contractor can obtain data from
Configuration Management about which of the following?
1. The location of the printer
2. The terms of the maintenance contract
3. The number of disruptions the printer has
experienced in the last six months
a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 1 & 3
c) Only 2 & 3
d) 1, 2, & 3 )
94
?
a
b
c
d
For which ITIL® process is the determination
of priorities based on impact and urgency an essential
activity?
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Financial Management
d) Service Level Management
95
?
a
b
c
d
Release Management is responsible for the
following activities:
1. The storage of the original copies of all
authorized software in the operating environment
2. Recording where a given version of
software is installed
3. Checking for illegal software on the
organization’s computers
4. Drawing up rules for numbering and
managing software versions
5. Change Management for all applications in
the organization
a) 1 & 2
b) 1 & 4
c) 1 & 3
d) 3 & 5
a)
96
?
a
b
c
d
For this company, it is important for the
operation of a given application that the same version of
the software is installed on every computer. Which process
ensures that this actually happens?
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management )
97
?
a
b
c
d
What is the consequence when Configuration
Items (CIs) are specified at too high a level?
a) Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot
be checked and managed properly
b) Certain Problems cannot be analyzed
because the information available is inadequate
c) There is insufficient assurance that the
information provided correctly reflects reality
d) All of the above )
98
?
a
b
c
d
An organization starts to use Internet and
e-mail. As many "images" are sent back and forth over the
network, its capacity needs expanding. Which process is
suitable for approving this capacity expansion?
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Network Management
d) Problem Management
99
?
a
b
c
d
Network users are repeatedly confronted with
a message on their monitors that states that there is not
enough hard disk memory in their PC’s. This problem is
related to the size of the software applications loaded on
the hard drives and the hard drives have to be replaced.
Which process provides formal approval for this change?
a) Capacity Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management )
100
?
a
b
c
d
Network users are repeatedly confronted with
a message on their monitors that states that there is not
enough hard disk memory in their PC’s. This problem is
related to the size of the software applications loaded on
the hard drives and the hard drives have to be replaced.
Which process provides formal approval for this change?
a) Capacity Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management )
a) Service
Operation
Questions
101
?
a
b
c
d
What is the primary goal in dealing with an
Incident?
a) To trace the cause of the Incident as soon
as possible
b) To redirect this Incident to the
appropriate specialists as soon as possible
c) To restore the service as soon as possible
d) To register the Incident as soon as
possible
102
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is the LEAST important
skill required of a Service Desk employee that deals
directly with users?
a) The ability to debug software online
b) Active listening
c) The ability to view things from the user's
perspective
d) The ability to work as a member of a team
a)
103
?
a
b
c
d
A Hardware failure occurs in a network
component. The Service Desk delegates the job of solving
this Incident to the supplier of the component. The contract
specifies that the supplier will solve this Incident in four
hours. Must the Service Desk check the progress of the
Incident?
a) Yes, because external partners have only
to meet the obligation of their contracts
b) Yes, because progress control of Incidents
is a task of the Service Desk
c) No, because the contract lays down the
latest time the Incident must be solved
d) No, because an external party is involved
and the Service Desk cannot influence the performance of the
supplier
104
?
a
b
c
d
A user calls the Service Desk with a
complaint that, when using a particular application, an
error occurs that breaks his connection to the network.
Which discipline has the overall responsibility for ensuring
that the underlying cause is traced?
a) Incident Management
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) System Development
a)
105
?
a
b
c
d
A network user calls the Service Desk to
report that he experienced problems saving files on a number
of occasions. He always gets the message that there is not
enough disk memory available. He suggests that he has
reported this problem to the Service Desk a number of times
before and his previous calls have all been recorded in the
Incident tracking tool. The Service Desk handles this call
by giving the user more disk memory on a server temporarily.
How should the Service Desk record this call?
a) As a Problem
b) As a Known Error
c) As an Incident
d) As a Request for Change
a)
106
?
a
b
c
d
According to ITIL, which of these statements
best describes an Incident?
a) An event that differs from an IT service’s
expected standard operation
b) A failure caused by an unknown reason
c) Each question, comment or complaint that
has been reported to the Service Desk by a user
d) An alarm generated by an automated
monitoring system
107
?
a
b
c
d
How does Problem Management support the
activities of the Service Desk?
a) It investigates all Incidents which the
Service Desk resolves
b) It relieves the Service Desk by
immediately communicating a solution to a Problem to the
users
c) It makes information available about a
Known Error to the Service Desk
d) All of the above
108
?
a
b
c
d
The order in which a series of Problems are
addressed must be based on…
a) The category to which the Problem belongs
b) The impact of the Problem
c) The priority of the Problem
d) The urgency of the Problem
a)
109
?
a
b
c
d
Which of these tasks belong in Problem
Management?
a) Coordination of all changes to the IT
infrastructure
b) Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs)
c) Approval of all changes made to the Known
Error Database
d) Recognizing user requirements and
subsequently implementing changes to the IT infrastructure
a)
110
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following activities does the
Service Desk undertake?
a) Error Control, Recording Incidents, Status
Accounting
b) Impact Determination, Problem Management,
Verification
c) Incident Control, Providing Management
Information, Recording CIs
d) Incident Control, Providing Management
Information, Recording Incidents
a)
111
?
a
b
c
d
You work at the Service Desk in an
organization. A user calls to report that her terminal does
not function. This is a (an)…
a) Incident
b) Known Error
c) Problem
d) Request for Change
112
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements best
describes an Incident?
a) Every event that is not part of the
standard operation of a service and which causes a
interruption in the quality of that service
b) Every call from a user to the Service Desk
c) Every situation in which the management
takes measures to improve the service
d) Every question or remark the user asks to
the Service Desk
113
?
a
b
c
d
Among others, Incident Management is
responsible for which of the following activities?
a) Authorizing changes to the infrastructure
b) Tracing the underlying causes of Incidents
c) Identifying the Problems behind the
Incidents
d) Restoring the service to the Customer as
quickly as possible )
114
?
a
b
c
d
Consider the two statements below.
1. By definition, an urgent Incident has the
highest priority.
2. An Incident has low impact if it only
causes a minor degradation from the normal level of service
for a small number of users.
Which of these statements is correct?
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both
d) Neither
115
?
a
b
c
d
Which of these best describes the purpose of
the Service Desk?
a) To provide users with the services
detailed in the SLAs
b) To prevent recurring Problems and to
maximize the availability of the services provided to users
c) To maximize the availability of IT service
when users really need them
d) To ensure there is a central point of
contact where all users can report Incidents, ask questions,
make comments and report complaints about services )
116
?
a
b
c
d
What is the best reason for recording a
Problem as soon as it has been identified?
a) It helps in setting priorities when
dealing with Problems
b) It enables Incidents to be dealt with
faster, while diagnosis information may still be available
c) It allows the quick assignment of the
Problem to a group of experts for diagnosis
d) It provides information about weak
components in the infrastructure
117
?
a
b
c
d
When a failure is reported, it is important
that the IT service be restored with minimum impact to the
Customer. Achieving this is mainly the task of:
a) Configuration Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Customer Relationship Management
a)
118
?
a
b
c
d
Our end users frequently ask whether their
passwords can be changed. Which of our ITIL® processes should
record this question in the first instance?
a) Configuration Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
a)
119
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of an
effective Incident Management process?
a) It improves Customer and user satisfaction
b) It reduces the impact of Incidents on the
business
c) It reduces the number of Incidents
d) It eliminates the loss of Incidents
120
?
a
b
c
d
A Customer calls a Service Desk to report
that what they were expecting to see on screen is not what
appeared on his monitor. When would this Incident be
prioritized for the first time?
a) At the moment the Service Desk logs the
Incident
b) At the moment the solution is known and
can be implemented
c) During the diagnosis
d) At the moment the user is contacted for
the second time
121
?
a
b
c
d
Why must a priority be allocated to every
Service Desk call?
a) To support the communication between the
Service Desk and the users
b) To make it possible to record all requests
in a computer system
c) To support procedures for the processing
of Incidents and identification of Problems
d) To determine how many people are needed at
the Service Desk
122
?
a
b
c
d
One of the activities of Problem Management
is…
a) Updating the CMDB every time another
Incident relating to a Known Error is received
b) Providing solutions for problems that
occur in vital infrastructure components
c) Initiating requests for changes to solve
Known Errors
d) Testing all changes to ensure that they
are free from Problems before they go live
a)
123
?
a
b
c
d
The allocation of an impact and urgency to
all Incidents means that…
a) Those fixing the IT services know which
Known Errors to fix first
b) Users know exactly when their issues will
be dealt with
c) More management information is available
d) Resources can be assigned to best meet
business needs )
124
?
a
b
c
d
What influences the initial priority of an
Incident?
a) The priority of the user
b) The impact on the business
c) The impact, urgency, and the expected
effort to resolve the Incident.
d) The severity and impact on the business
125
?
a
b
c
d
Network managers are overworked. They barely
have the time to manage the network. One of the reasons for
this is that users approach them directly to answer all
kinds of questions. Which ITIL® process or sub-process needs
to be set up to improve this situation?
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Problem Management
c) Incident Management )
126
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following BEST describes the
purpose of Event Management?
a) To detect events, make sense of them and
determine the appropriate control action
b) To monitor interactions and exceptions
within the infrastructure
c) To monitor and control the activities of
technical staff
d) To detect and escalate exceptions to
normal service operation
127
?
a
b
c
d
Functions are best described as?
a) Self-Contained units of organizations
b) Inter-related activities with a defined
goal or output
c) Closed loop control systems
d) A team of IT staff who provide a single
point of contact for all user communication
a)
128
?
a
b
c
d
Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical
Infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical
skills required to manage and support the IT Infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements
for the various technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical
failures
a)
129
?
a
b
c
d
The BEST definition of an event is?
a) An occurrence that is significant for the
management of the IT Infrastructure or delivery of services
b) An occurrence where a capacity threshold
has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already
been impacted
c) A known system defect that causes low
impact incidents
d) A planned meeting between Service Level
Managers and customers
a)
130
?
a
b
c
d
What is the difference between a Known Error
and a Problem?
a) The underlying cause of a Known Error is
known. The underlying cause of a Problem is not known
b) A Known Error involves an error in the IT
infrastructure, a Problem does not involve such an error.
c) A Known Error always originates from an
Incident. This is not always the case with a Problem
d) With a Problem, the relevant Configuration
Items have been identified. This is not the case with a
Known Error )
131
?
a
b
c
d
There have been multiple incidents recorded
by the Service Desk. It appears that the network is
congested due to multiple connections. What kind of actions
should the Service Desk analyst take in this instance?
a) They should ask the Capacity Manager to
expand the capacity of the network
b) They should ask the Problem Manager to
look into the problem right away
c) They should ask the Security Manager to
check whether too many authorizations may have been issued
d) They should ask the Service Level Manager
to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLA) with a
decreased availability target
a)
132
?
a
b
c
d
What is the best definition of an Incident
Model?
a) A type of incident involving an authorized
Configuration Item (CI)
b) The template used by Service Desk analysts
to record incidents
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed
when dealing with a known type of incident
d) An Incident that is easy is solved at
first contact
a)
133
?
a
b
c
d
Which ITIL® process ensures that the IT
Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a
malfunction?
a) Change Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Service Level Management
a)
134
?
a
b
c
d
Incident Management has a value to the
business by?
a) Helping to minimize infrastructure cost of
adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Finding permanent solutions to ineffective
business processes
d) Contributing to the reduction of outages
a)
135
?
a
b
c
d
Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Event and Access
Management Processes
b) Overseeing the monitoring and escalating
of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor the status of
the IT Network
d) The situation where the Service Desk
manager is required to monitor the status of the
infrastructure when Service Desk Operators are not available
a)
136
?
a
b
c
d
Which are the missing Service Operation
processes from the following list: 1. Incident Management,
2. Problem Management, 3. Event Management?
a) Access Management and Request Fulfilment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level
Management
a)
137
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following BEST describes a
Workaround?
a) A Service Desk Operator uses a pre-defined
technique to restore service as this Incident has been seen
before
b) A second level support person uses trial
and error to solve an Incident, one of them works, but does
not know why
c) After reporting the problem to the Service
Desk, the user works on another task while the problem is
identified and resolved
d) A service works now and then, thus
allowing the user to continue working with interrupted
levels of performance while the support person resolves the
problem
a)
138
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is NOT an example of a
Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a
toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they
would like to change the functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new
employee to be given access to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal web site to
download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved
options
139
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following statements are CORRECT
about Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to
organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their
own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for
cross-functional coordination
4. They are costlier to implement compared to
processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
a)
140
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following BEST describes a Local
Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite
technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak
one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the
same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any
physical location but uses telecommunications and systems to
make it appear that they are in the same location
a)
141
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is NOT an objective of
Service Operation?
a) Thorough testing, to ensure that services
are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and support IT Services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver
services
d) To monitor the performance of technology
and processes
a)
142
?
a
b
c
d
A major Incident:
1) Requires shorter timescales
2) Requires a separate system
3) Requires a separate procedure
Which of the above is true?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
a)
a) Continual
Service Improvement
Questions
143
?
a
b
c
d
What is the CORRECT order of the first four
activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
a) Gather data, process data, analyse data
and present data
b) What is the vision, where are we now, what
do we want to be, how do we get there?
c) Define what you should measure, define
what you can measure, gather data and process data
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
a)
144
?
a
b
c
d
Which is the first activity of the Continual
Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand the vision of the business
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
a)
145
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following is NOT a step in the
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
a)
146
?
a
b
c
d
The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
a)
147
?
a
b
c
d
Why should monitoring and measuring be used
when trying to improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase
technology and train people
a)
148
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following are the three main
types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement
(CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. User Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Customer Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
a)
149
?
a
b
c
d
Which of the following benefits would be
LEAST useful in supporting a business case for service
improvement?
a) Reduced technology investment by 20% due
to more accurate capacity and performance modelling
processes
b) Reduced support manpower demand by 30% due
to automated incident and problem management processes
c) Reduced level of customer complaints due
to more effective Service Level Management
d) Reduced Problem resolution time by half
due to improved knowledge management
a)
150
?
a
b
c
d
Which is correct?:
1) CSI provides guidance on improving
efficiency and effectiveness
2) CSI provides guidance on improvements to
services
3) CSI provides guidance on improvement of
all phases except Service Strategy
4) CSI provides guidance on measurement of
processes
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) All of the above
a)
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