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ITIL® Lifecycle Questions: Are you ready for the exam?

Read the questions carefully and then select the best answer. Theses questions cover:

  • Across the Lifecycle

  • Service Strategy

  • Service Design

  • Service Transition

  • Service Operation

  • Continual Service Improvement

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# Answer

Questions Across the Lifecycle

1

"Warranty of a service" means which of the following?  

 

a) The service is fit for purpose

b) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity, continuity and security

c) The service has been tested appropriately with no errors being found

d) All customers are given free support for the service for a stated period of time

2

What are the three most important benefits for implementing ITIL® within an IT organization?

1. Improving IT service quality

2. Improving Customer focus

3. Improving service cost-effectiveness

4. Improving staff skills

 

a) 1, 2, and 3.

b) 1, 2, and 4

c) 2, 3, and 4

d) All of the above

3

A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?

 

a) Purchasing tools to support the Process

b) Defining the targets that will be used to evaluate process performance

c) Ensuring that availability targets specified in SLAs are met

d) Carrying out all the activities defined in the Process

4

IT Service Management is best described as?

 

a) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services.

b) The processes required to deliver and support services

c) The processes that enable efficient IT service delivery and support

d) A technically focused set of management practices for IT service delivery

a)

5

ITIL® can be best described as?

 

a) A holistic, Service Lifecycle approach to ITSM based on international best practices

b) Repeatable and adaptable ITSM processes

c) An international standard for ITSM

d) The best way for an organization to improve its IT service delivery and support

a)

6

Processes can be described as?

 

a) Activities designed to make delivering IT Services more effective and efficient

b) People and the tools they use to carry out activities that gain revenue

c) Inter-related activities carried out for the purpose of creating value for customers or stakeholders

d) Capabilities used to reduce IT costs

a)

7

The ITIL® framework is best described as?

 

a) An Service Delivery Lifecycle

b) An IT Management Lifecycle

c) A Service Lifecycle

d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle

a)

8

Which of the following statements is ALWAYS CORRECT about a 'good practice’?

 

a) It is a strict set of rules and practices to be complied with

b) It is something that is successful in wide industry use

c) It is used by the most profitable international organizations

d) It is always based on ITIL®

a)

9

"If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented" is a principle that applies to which of the following?

 

a) The Glossary of Terms

b) A Service Level Agreement (SLA)

c) An Incident Management record

d) A Configuration Item (CI)

a)

10

What is the RACI model used for?

 

a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity

b) Defining requirements for a new service or process

c) Analysing the business impact of an incident

d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management

a)

11

A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

 

a) Recommending improvements to services under their care

b) Defining and documenting Service Requirements

c) Carrying out the activities needed to support a Service

d) Reporting service levels back to the customer

a)

12

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity

2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity

 

a) All the above

b) 1 only

c) 2 only

d) None of the above

a)

13

How do organizations use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?

 

a) They are used to create value in the form of network availability

b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services

c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Design

d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Transition

a)

14

Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL® phases?

 

a) Service Organization

b) Service Transition

c) Service Design

d) Service Strategy

a)

15

Defining the value and objectives of IT Services is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

 

a) Service Strategy

b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement

c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation

d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement

a)

16

Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?

 

a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement

b) Service Strategy, Service Design, and Service Operation

c) Service Transition and Continual Service Improvement

d) Continual Service Improvement

a)

 
 
a)Service Strategy Questions

a)

17
Which of the following are Service Portfolio components within the Service Lifecycle?
1. Requirements Portfolio
2. Service Pipeline
3. Configuration Management System
4. Service Catalogue
 
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
18
What is missing from the following Service Strategy processes? Service Portfolio Management, Demand Management and …
 
a) Financial Management for IT Services
b) Service Level Management
c) Supplier Management
d) Information Security Management
a)
19
Which ITIL® process is responsible for drawing up a charging system?
 
a) Demand Management
b) Supplier Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Level Management
a)
20
Which information does the "Financial Management for IT Services" process deliver to Service Level Management?
 
a) Cost of hiring new IT staff
b) Cost of the Financial Management system
c) Total costs Application Management
d) How much has been spent on IT services per client
21
A Service Level Package is best described as?
 
a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a service package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed reporting period
a)
22
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the customer's business?
 
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management
a)
23
Demand Management is primarily used to:
 
a) Increase customer perception
b) Eliminate excess capacity needs
c) Increase the value of IT Services
d) Align business with IT needs
a)
24
Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service Portfolio Management?
 
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the support procedures for this service?
a)
25
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
 
a) IT accounting helps to justify expenditure on new and improved services
b) Charging users for the IT services they use will reduce the unit costs of supplying those services.
c) Charging can influence user behaviour
d) Having to rely on planning information from other sources can be a problem when introducing Financial Management
26
Consider the following statements:
1. In order to draw up a standard cost-plus calculation, it is necessary to have information about the anticipated use that will be made of the IT services.
2. One of the conditions for charging is that the chargeable units must be recognizable and verifiable for the Customer.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
 
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both.
d) Neither
27
How can data from Financial Management be used in Service Level Agreements?
 
a) To set penalties
b) To set the charge rates for IT services.
c) To include an overview of the actual costs of IT services
d) All of the above
28
Which of these is a key reason why charging for IT Services is an important element of Financial Management?
 
a) The availability of an IT Service can be measured
b) The resources needed for each application can be determined
c) The use of IT Services can be influenced.
d) Scenarios for capacity planning can be investigated
a)
29
The three activities of Financial Management are…
 
a) Budgeting, accounting and charging.
b) Budgeting, costing and procuring
c) Planning, costing and charging
c) Accounting, charging and procuring
a)
30
Costing of IT services allows an organization to:
 
a) Know how much to charge users for services
b) Establish how much is spent on providing each service
c) Prevent users from wasting its resources
d) Retire expensive resources
a)
31
An IT organization’s IT charging system registers an unexpected annual loss. Which of the following factors might explain this discrepancy?
1. Charges may have been set too high
2. Costs may have been higher than expected
3. A loss of Customers may have occurred
 
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) None of the above
a)
32
Which of the following items are likely to be capital costs?
1. Computer equipment
2. Buildings
3. Electricity
4. Staff salaries
 
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4
 
 
a)Service Design Questions

a)

33
The main objective of Availability Management is?
 
a) To provide maximum availability for IT Services
b) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the business
c) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) for customers are continually delivered
d) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
a)
34
What is another term for Uptime?
 
a) Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)
b) Mean Time to Restore Service (MTRS)
c) Mean Time Between System Incidents (MTBSI)
d) Relationship between MTBF and MTBSI
a)
35
Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the measurement systems, methods and metrics to be used
5. ?
 
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of processes
a)
36
Which ITIL® process is involved in performing risk assessments and a business impact analysis to determine appropriate "countermeasures" to be implemented?
 
a) Availability Management
b) Problem Management
c) IT Service Continuity Management
d) Service Asset & Configuration Management
a)
37
What are the four P’s Service Design?
 
a) Process, Partner, Product, People
b) Hardware, Software, Management, Process
c) Process, Product, Pricing, People
d) Technology, Process, Management, People
38
Who is authorised to establish an agreement with the IT organisation for the purchase of IT Services?
 
a) The user
b) The Service Level Manager
c) The Chief Information Officer
d) The customer
a)
39
What is the name of the activity within the Capacity Management process whose purpose is to predict the future capacity requirements of new and changed services?
 
a) Application Sizing
b) Demand Management
c) Modeling
d) Tuning
a)
40
A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
 
a) The Licence information of all software
b) Decommissioned Services
c) Proposed or in development Services
d) Details of all operational services
a)
41
Which of the following is a responsibility of Service Level Management?
 
a) Design the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Supporting the creation of a Business Service Catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about service
a)
42
Which of the following is an activity of IT Service Continuity Management?
 
a) Advising end users of a system failure
b) Documenting the fallback arrangements
c) Reporting regarding availability
d) Guaranteeing that the Configuration Items are constantly kept up-to-date
a)
43
Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing and Outsourcing delivery model options?
 
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on external organisation(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organisation(s) resources; outsourcing relies on internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on application service provisioning
a)
44
In which ITIL® process are negotiations held with the customer about the availability and capacity levels to be provided?
 
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management for IT Services
d) Service Level Management
a)
45
The main benefit of using Service Design tools is?
 
a) To help ensure that design standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that incidents are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different CIs to work together
d) To help collate metrics used for improvement
a)
46
Which is NOT and objective of Service Design Phase?
 
a) Ensure that IT staff is trained and able to carry out building and testing of new service
b) Convert strategic objectives in portfolios of services and service assets
c) Ensure production and maintenance of Service Catalogue
d) Ensure cost justifiable capacity of service is matched to business needs
a)
47
The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
 
a) Senior Account managers and all IT staff
b) Senior managers, IT executives and the Service Desk
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
a)
48
Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a regular basis?
 
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Technical Management
d) Contract Management
a)
49
Consider the following statements:
1. A change in the IT infrastructure is always the result of a change of a Service Level
2. A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits many similarities to procedures of drawing up a Request for Change (RFC).
Which of these statements is/are correct?
 
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both
d) Neither
a)
50
The performance of a large computer network is monitored 24 hours a day. This produces data for which processes?
 
a) Availability Management, Capacity Management, and Change Management
b) Availability Management, Capacity Management, and Problem Management
c) Change Management, Financial Management, and Service Level Management
d) Financial Management, Service Desk, and Problem Management
51
A computer support technician establishes that a storage disk is in danger of becoming completely full. He reports this to…
 
a) Capacity Management.
b) Change Management
c) Configuration Management
d) Service Level Management
a)
52
How is the availability of the IT infrastructure BEST improved?
 
a) By increasing the reliability of the software
b) By increasing the capacity of the infrastructure
c) By training technicians so they can repair components faster
d) By installing components with higher reliability and restoring services as soon as possible
a)
53
Which of the concepts below belongs to Service Continuity Management?
 
a) Application Sizing
b) Maintainability
c) Resilience
d) Vulnerability
a)
54
To support the planned installation of new software releases, a network server needs upgrading. Which process would be responsible for investigating the upgrade requirements of the network server?
 
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management
55
In determining service levels, which of the following processes would be expected to make the greatest contribution?
 
a) Service Level Management and Availability Management
b) Service Level Management and Computer Operations
c) Availability Management and Capacity Management
d) Cost Management and Capacity Management
a)
56
Which expression below represents the correct calculation of the availability percentage?
 
a) ((Agreed time – Downtime) / Agreed time) * 100
b) Downtime / Agreed time * 100
c) Agreed time / Actual time * 100
d) Actual Time / Agreed time / 100
57
What is the best method to ensure that IT services are geared to the requirements of the users?
 
a) To appoint a Service Manager
b) To set up a Service Desk
c) To initiate Service Level Agreements
d) To hold regular meetings between the IT staff and the users
58
Every year at this organization, the hardware and software purchase requirements for the next year have to be worked out. Which function is responsible for producing appropriate recommendations?
 
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management
d) Change Management
a)
59
A two-hour down time has been agreed with users during normal service hours to carry out essential maintenance work. It soon becomes apparent that completion of the maintenance work will take three rather than two hours. What process is most concerned with this delay?
 
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management
d) Release Management
60
Which of the following statements about Supplier Management is INCORRECT?
 
a) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business expectations
b) Supplier Management provides capabilities for seamless quality in IT services
c) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external agreements to support the delivery of services
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and Improvement
a)
61
During the development of a new information system, the amount of disk space needed for the application software as well as the data is determined. Which function is responsible for ensuring that this disk space is available at the moment the information system is phased in?
 
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Financial Management
d) Release Management
62
A network server has to be upgraded in anticipation of the planned installation of a new software release. Which process is responsible for assessing the amount of disk space the network server will require?
 
a) Capacity Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
63
Clear agreements have been made with a user about the amount of disk space he will have on the network server for storing his "personal" files. Which process is responsible for insuring that this disk space is actually made available?
 
a) Availability Management
b) Capacity Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management
 
 
a)Service Transition Questions

a)

64
All computer equipment and applications software should be recorded in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB). Which other components should also be recorded in the CMDB?
1. Data communications equipment
2. Documentation
3. Personnel
 
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 2, and 3)
65
A new disk unit has to be installed to solve a problem with performing back-ups over the network. The procedures for doing the back-ups have to be changed as well. Which process has to give approval for carrying out these changes?
 
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
a)
66
Let's say the proper operation of an organization’s financial application depends on the same version of the software being installed on every computer. For this company, which process would be responsible for implementing this change?
 
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
67
What is the consequence of the Configuration Management’s scope being too narrow?
 
a) Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot be checked and managed properly
b) Certain Problems cannot be analyzed because of a lack of information
c) There are insufficient guarantees that the information in the CMDB accurately reflects the status of the actual infrastructure
d) All of the above)
68
Imagine that a user is provided with a new PC that is connected to her company intranet. Her old PC is installed as a print server for the local area network. Which process would be responsible for recording this relocation?
 
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
a)
69
A number of new PCs are due to be installed in an office. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of Configuration Management?
 
a) Checking the completeness and correctness of the recorded data concerning the PCs
b) Checking the operation of the PCs
c) Labelling and recording the data concerning the PCs
d) Recording and monitoring the status of recorded data of the PCs
70
Which of the following best describes the Definitive Media Library?
 
a) A safe, secure work area in which changes to software can be made
b) A library containing back-up copies of all software used on the infrastructure
c) A secure library of software where all accepted software CIs are held in their quality-controlled form
d) A secure software library in which all current software versions are stored
a)
71
The benefits to an organization that introduces an effective Release Management process include:
1. Software is released to the live environment in a way that minimizes the likeliness of Incidents and Problems.
2. Only one version of software is ever in use at one time throughout the organization.
3. The risk of pirate software being introduced is reduced.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
 
a) 1 and 2
b) only 1
c) 1 and 3
d) All
a)
72
A company implementing the ITIL® process uses a software program that requires altering to correct a fault. Which ITIL® function would approve the alteration?
 
a) Software Management
b) Problem Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
73
Every Configuration Item in a Configuration Management Database (CMDB) must have a unique reference so that…
 
a) Audits can be executed using electronic equipment
b) The same identifier can be used for several independent Configuration Items in the CMDB
c) No mistakes can occur in the identification of the Configuration Items when the CMDB is used
d) New Configuration Items can be registered quickly in the CMDB
74
During the implementation of a new word processing system on a number of local area networks (LANs), it transpires that a unique driver must be installed on each LAN router for the system to work correctly. Which process is responsible for ensuring that the driver is installed on each LAN router?
 
a) Configuration Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management
a)
75
Change Management is always responsible for:
 
a) Ensuring that changes are only permitted after all those who might be affected have had the opportunity to express their views
b) Ensuring that only changes which have been approved by the Change Advisory Board are allowable
c) Maintaining the status of all Requests for Changes (RFCs)
d) Making all changes to the IT infrastructure
a)
76
Which of the following can be regarded as a direct benefit of introducing Change Management?
 
a) Improved security against malicious changes to software
b) Better IT service provision through controlled changes
c) A better understanding of what changes will cost
d) Fewer changes to the IT infrastructure
77
Data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) may be updated only if an authorization has been issued. Which process implicitly issues this authorization?
 
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Service Desk
d) Service Level Management
a)
78
After a Change has been implemented, an evaluation is performed. What is this evaluation called?
 
a) Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)
b) Post Implementation Review (PIR)
c) Service Improvement Programme (SIP)
d) Change Review 
a)
79
What does the Service V model represent?
 
a) The utility and performance requirements of new and changed services
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient and effective utilization of resources
c) A strategy for the successful completion of all IT changes
d) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service Capability
a)
80
What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
 
a) To standardise operation
b) For later comparison
c) For knowing the cost of services provided
d) For roles and responsibility to be clear
a)
81
Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Automated workflow of ITIL® processes
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Distribution and installation of patches
4. Performance testing of new and modified services
 
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
a)
82
The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
 
a) Account for all the financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure
c) Build service models to justify ITIL® implementations
d) Provide capabilities for managing documents across the organization
83
What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board?
 
a) To make sure the Change Manager responds urgently to emergency changes
b) To assist the Change Manager to implement urgent changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in rushing the emergency change process so that changes can occur quickly
a)
84
Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
 
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for release
a)
85
Which of the following best describes the primary objective of Knowledge Management?
 
a) Auditing the configuration management system from a business perspective
b) Reducing the staffing requirements for the Service Desk and other support teams
c) To ensure reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the Service Lifecycle
d) To reduce the average Mean Time to Restore (MTTR) for incidents affecting Service availability
a)
86
Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on transitioning new services into live environment
2. Service Transition provides guidance on releases
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an external provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
 
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
a)
87
Which activity in Service Asset & Configuration Management would help to ascertain which Configuration Items are undergoing maintenance at a particular moment in time?
 
a) Control
b) Verification and audit
c) Identification.
d) Status accounting
a)
88
The following options are considered within which process?
1. Big bang vs Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs Manual
 
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management
a)
89
Which of the following are objectives of the Release and Deployment Management process?
1. To develop a release and deployment policy
2. To ensure that training occurs for new service to operations and support staff
3. To ensure that new services are tested prior to release
4. To provide cost justifiable IT availability that is matched to the needs of the business
 
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
a)
90
The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is best described as?
 
a) To maximize the performance characteristics of Configuration Items (CIs) in
b) To manage CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business requirements they were designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration records
a)
91
The objective of the Change Management process is most accurately described as?
 
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that emergency changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and effectively
c) Ensuring that changes have appropriate rollback plans in the event of a major incident
d) Maximizing services by allowing changes to be made quickly
92
Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
 
a) Master copies of authorized software
b) Backups tapes of financial data
c) Software licences
d) Master copies of controlled documentation
a)
93
A printer in the insurance department has broken down. A contractor responsible for the maintenance of the printer wants to approach the supplier of the printer to fix the defect. The contractor can obtain data from Configuration Management about which of the following?
1. The location of the printer
2. The terms of the maintenance contract
3. The number of disruptions the printer has experienced in the last six months
 
a) Only 1 & 2
b) Only 1 & 3
c) Only 2 & 3
d) 1, 2, & 3)
94
For which ITIL® process is the determination of priorities based on impact and urgency an essential activity?
 
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Financial Management
d) Service Level Management
95
Release Management is responsible for the following activities:
1. The storage of the original copies of all authorized software in the operating environment
2. Recording where a given version of software is installed
3. Checking for illegal software on the organization’s computers
4. Drawing up rules for numbering and managing software versions
5. Change Management for all applications in the organization
 
a) 1 & 2
b) 1 & 4
c) 1 & 3
d) 3 & 5
a)
96
For this company, it is important for the operation of a given application that the same version of the software is installed on every computer. Which process ensures that this actually happens?
 
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Network Management
d) Release Management)
97
What is the consequence when Configuration Items (CIs) are specified at too high a level?
 
a) Certain parts of the infrastructure cannot be checked and managed properly
b) Certain Problems cannot be analyzed because the information available is inadequate
c) There is insufficient assurance that the information provided correctly reflects reality
d) All of the above)
98
An organization starts to use Internet and e-mail. As many "images" are sent back and forth over the network, its capacity needs expanding. Which process is suitable for approving this capacity expansion?
 
a) Capacity Management
b) Change Management
c) Network Management
d) Problem Management
99
Network users are repeatedly confronted with a message on their monitors that states that there is not enough hard disk memory in their PC’s. This problem is related to the size of the software applications loaded on the hard drives and the hard drives have to be replaced. Which process provides formal approval for this change?
 
a) Capacity Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management)
100
Network users are repeatedly confronted with a message on their monitors that states that there is not enough hard disk memory in their PC’s. This problem is related to the size of the software applications loaded on the hard drives and the hard drives have to be replaced. Which process provides formal approval for this change?
 
a) Capacity Management
b) Network Management
c) Release Management
d) Change Management)
 
 
a)Service Operation Questions

a)

101
What is the primary goal in dealing with an Incident?
 
a) To trace the cause of the Incident as soon as possible
b) To redirect this Incident to the appropriate specialists as soon as possible
c) To restore the service as soon as possible
d) To register the Incident as soon as possible
102
Which of the following is the LEAST important skill required of a Service Desk employee that deals directly with users?
 
a) The ability to debug software online
b) Active listening
c) The ability to view things from the user's perspective
d) The ability to work as a member of a team
a)
103
A Hardware failure occurs in a network component. The Service Desk delegates the job of solving this Incident to the supplier of the component. The contract specifies that the supplier will solve this Incident in four hours. Must the Service Desk check the progress of the Incident?
 
a) Yes, because external partners have only to meet the obligation of their contracts
b) Yes, because progress control of Incidents is a task of the Service Desk
c) No, because the contract lays down the latest time the Incident must be solved
d) No, because an external party is involved and the Service Desk cannot influence the performance of the supplier
104
A user calls the Service Desk with a complaint that, when using a particular application, an error occurs that breaks his connection to the network. Which discipline has the overall responsibility for ensuring that the underlying cause is traced?
 
a) Incident Management
b) Network Management
c) Problem Management
d) System Development
a)
105
A network user calls the Service Desk to report that he experienced problems saving files on a number of occasions. He always gets the message that there is not enough disk memory available. He suggests that he has reported this problem to the Service Desk a number of times before and his previous calls have all been recorded in the Incident tracking tool. The Service Desk handles this call by giving the user more disk memory on a server temporarily. How should the Service Desk record this call?
 
a) As a Problem
b) As a Known Error
c) As an Incident
d) As a Request for Change
a)
106
According to ITIL, which of these statements best describes an Incident?
 
a) An event that differs from an IT service’s expected standard operation
b) A failure caused by an unknown reason
c) Each question, comment or complaint that has been reported to the Service Desk by a user
d) An alarm generated by an automated monitoring system
107
How does Problem Management support the activities of the Service Desk?
 
a) It investigates all Incidents which the Service Desk resolves
b) It relieves the Service Desk by immediately communicating a solution to a Problem to the users
c) It makes information available about a Known Error to the Service Desk
d) All of the above
108
The order in which a series of Problems are addressed must be based on…
 
a) The category to which the Problem belongs
b) The impact of the Problem
c) The priority of the Problem
d) The urgency of the Problem
a)
109
Which of these tasks belong in Problem Management?
 
a) Coordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure
b) Classification of Requests for Change (RFCs)
c) Approval of all changes made to the Known Error Database
d) Recognizing user requirements and subsequently implementing changes to the IT infrastructure
a)
110
Which of the following activities does the Service Desk undertake?
a) Error Control, Recording Incidents, Status Accounting
b) Impact Determination, Problem Management, Verification
c) Incident Control, Providing Management Information, Recording CIs
d) Incident Control, Providing Management Information, Recording Incidents
a)
111
You work at the Service Desk in an organization. A user calls to report that her terminal does not function. This is a (an)…
 
a) Incident
b) Known Error
c) Problem
d) Request for Change
112
Which of the following statements best describes an Incident?
 
a) Every event that is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes a interruption in the quality of that service
b) Every call from a user to the Service Desk
c) Every situation in which the management takes measures to improve the service
d) Every question or remark the user asks to the Service Desk
113
Among others, Incident Management is responsible for which of the following activities?
 
a) Authorizing changes to the infrastructure
b) Tracing the underlying causes of Incidents
c) Identifying the Problems behind the Incidents
d) Restoring the service to the Customer as quickly as possible)
114
Consider the two statements below.
1. By definition, an urgent Incident has the highest priority.
2. An Incident has low impact if it only causes a minor degradation from the normal level of service for a small number of users.
Which of these statements is correct?
 
a) Only the first
b) Only the second
c) Both
d) Neither
115
Which of these best describes the purpose of the Service Desk?
 
a) To provide users with the services detailed in the SLAs
b) To prevent recurring Problems and to maximize the availability of the services provided to users
c) To maximize the availability of IT service when users really need them
d) To ensure there is a central point of contact where all users can report Incidents, ask questions, make comments and report complaints about services)
116
What is the best reason for recording a Problem as soon as it has been identified?
 
a) It helps in setting priorities when dealing with Problems
b) It enables Incidents to be dealt with faster, while diagnosis information may still be available
c) It allows the quick assignment of the Problem to a group of experts for diagnosis
d) It provides information about weak components in the infrastructure
117
When a failure is reported, it is important that the IT service be restored with minimum impact to the Customer. Achieving this is mainly the task of:
 
a) Configuration Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Customer Relationship Management
a)
118
Our end users frequently ask whether their passwords can be changed. Which of our ITIL® processes should record this question in the first instance?
 
a) Configuration Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Change Management
a)
119
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of an effective Incident Management process?
 
a) It improves Customer and user satisfaction
b) It reduces the impact of Incidents on the business
c) It reduces the number of Incidents
d) It eliminates the loss of Incidents
120
A Customer calls a Service Desk to report that what they were expecting to see on screen is not what appeared on his monitor. When would this Incident be prioritized for the first time?
 
a) At the moment the Service Desk logs the Incident
b) At the moment the solution is known and can be implemented
c) During the diagnosis
d) At the moment the user is contacted for the second time
121
Why must a priority be allocated to every Service Desk call?
 
a) To support the communication between the Service Desk and the users
b) To make it possible to record all requests in a computer system
c) To support procedures for the processing of Incidents and identification of Problems
d) To determine how many people are needed at the Service Desk
122
One of the activities of Problem Management is…
 
a) Updating the CMDB every time another Incident relating to a Known Error is received
b) Providing solutions for problems that occur in vital infrastructure components
c) Initiating requests for changes to solve Known Errors
d) Testing all changes to ensure that they are free from Problems before they go live
a)
123
The allocation of an impact and urgency to all Incidents means that…
 
a) Those fixing the IT services know which Known Errors to fix first
b) Users know exactly when their issues will be dealt with
c) More management information is available
d) Resources can be assigned to best meet business needs)
124
What influences the initial priority of an Incident?
 
a) The priority of the user
b) The impact on the business
c) The impact, urgency, and the expected effort to resolve the Incident.
d) The severity and impact on the business
125
Network managers are overworked. They barely have the time to manage the network. One of the reasons for this is that users approach them directly to answer all kinds of questions. Which ITIL® process or sub-process needs to be set up to improve this situation?
 
a) Change Management
b) Configuration Management
c) Problem Management
c) Incident Management)
126
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
 
a) To detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate control action
b) To monitor interactions and exceptions within the infrastructure
c) To monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) To detect and escalate exceptions to normal service operation
127
Functions are best described as?
 
a) Self-Contained units of organizations
b) Inter-related activities with a defined goal or output
c) Closed loop control systems
d) A team of IT staff who provide a single point of contact for all user communication
a)
128
Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
 
a) Maintenance of the technical Infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and support the IT Infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the various technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures
a)
129
The BEST definition of an event is?
 
a) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the IT Infrastructure or delivery of services
b) An occurrence where a capacity threshold has been exceeded and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted
c) A known system defect that causes low impact incidents
d) A planned meeting between Service Level Managers and customers
a)
130
What is the difference between a Known Error and a Problem?
 
a) The underlying cause of a Known Error is known. The underlying cause of a Problem is not known
b) A Known Error involves an error in the IT infrastructure, a Problem does not involve such an error.
c) A Known Error always originates from an Incident. This is not always the case with a Problem
d) With a Problem, the relevant Configuration Items have been identified. This is not the case with a Known Error)
131
There have been multiple incidents recorded by the Service Desk. It appears that the network is congested due to multiple connections. What kind of actions should the Service Desk analyst take in this instance?
 
a) They should ask the Capacity Manager to expand the capacity of the network
b) They should ask the Problem Manager to look into the problem right away
c) They should ask the Security Manager to check whether too many authorizations may have been issued
d) They should ask the Service Level Manager to revise the Service Level Agreements (SLA) with a decreased availability target
a)
132
What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
 
a) A type of incident involving an authorized Configuration Item (CI)
b) The template used by Service Desk analysts to record incidents
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a known type of incident
d) An Incident that is easy is solved at first contact
a)
133
Which ITIL® process ensures that the IT Services are restored as soon as possible in the case of a malfunction?
 
a) Change Management
b) Incident Management
c) Problem Management
d) Service Level Management
a)
134
Incident Management has a value to the business by?
 
a) Helping to minimize infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Finding permanent solutions to ineffective business processes
d) Contributing to the reduction of outages
a)
135
Operations Control refers to?
 
a) The managers of the Event and Access Management Processes
b) Overseeing the monitoring and escalating of IT operational events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor the status of the IT Network
d) The situation where the Service Desk manager is required to monitor the status of the infrastructure when Service Desk Operators are not available
a)
136
Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the following list: 1. Incident Management, 2. Problem Management, 3. Event Management?
 
a) Access Management and Request Fulfilment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management
a)
137
Which of the following BEST describes a Workaround?
 
a) A Service Desk Operator uses a pre-defined technique to restore service as this Incident has been seen before
b) A second level support person uses trial and error to solve an Incident, one of them works, but does not know why
c) After reporting the problem to the Service Desk, the user works on another task while the problem is identified and resolved
d) A service works now and then, thus allowing the user to continue working with interrupted levels of performance while the support person resolves the problem
a)
138
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
 
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal web site to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options
139
Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
 
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
a)
140
Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
 
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses telecommunications and systems to make it appear that they are in the same location
a)
141
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
 
a) Thorough testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and support IT Services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
a)
142
A major Incident:
1) Requires shorter timescales
2) Requires a separate system
3) Requires a separate procedure
Which of the above is true?
 
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
a)
 
 
a)Continual Service Improvement Questions

a)

143
What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
 
a) Gather data, process data, analyse data and present data
b) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do we get there?
c) Define what you should measure, define what you can measure, gather data and process data
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
a)
144
Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
 
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand the vision of the business
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
a)
145
Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
 
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
a)
146
The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
 
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act
a)
147
Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to improve services?
 
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
a)
148
Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. User Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Customer Metrics
 
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
a)
149
Which of the following benefits would be LEAST useful in supporting a business case for service improvement?
 
a) Reduced technology investment by 20% due to more accurate capacity and performance modelling processes
b) Reduced support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and problem management processes
c) Reduced level of customer complaints due to more effective Service Level Management
d) Reduced Problem resolution time by half due to improved knowledge management
a)
150
Which is correct?:
1) CSI provides guidance on improving efficiency and effectiveness
2) CSI provides guidance on improvements to services
3) CSI provides guidance on improvement of all phases except Service Strategy
4) CSI provides guidance on measurement of processes
 
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) All of the above
a)
    We have many more sample questions in our Accredited Web Training

 

  

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